If you’re preparing for the United States Medical Licensing Examination® (USMLE®) Step 2 exam, you might want to know which questions are most often missed by test-prep takers. Check out this example from Kaplan Medical, and read an expert explanation of the answer. Also check out all posts in this series.
The AMA selected Kaplan as a preferred provider to support you in reaching your goal of passing the USMLE® or COMLEX-USA®. AMA members can save 30% on access to additional study resources, such as Kaplan’s Qbank and High-yield courses. Learn more.
This month’s stumper
A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a two-day history of fever, headache and confusion. He has a history of prostate cancer, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Current medications include lisinopril and metformin. He appears confused. His temperature is 39.7° C (103.5° F), blood pressure is 120/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 102 beats per minute. Examination shows neck stiffness. A lumbar puncture is performed. Gram stain of the cerebrospinal fluid shows lancet-shaped, gram-positive diplococci.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Ampicillin, ceftriaxone and vancomycin.
C. Ceftriaxone and vancomycin.
F. Vancomycin plus ampicillin.